The
UGC NET Examination of 8th July 2018 was re-conducted in certain
centre on 22nd July, 2018 by the CBSE. Kindly find herewith the
answer keys along with question papers of the examination held on 22nd
July, 2018 of Series-W. The answer keys are as per the revised answer keys
release after grievances by the CBSE. Kindly note that now-a-days the UGC NET
Examination is conducted by National Testing Agency (NTA) instead of CBSE or
UGC.
1.
From the following list of statements, select those which indicate the
characteristics and basic requirements of teaching.
(i)
Teaching implies communication.
(ii)
Teaching is like selling goods.
(iii)
Teaching means managing and monitoring.
(iv)
Teaching implies influencing others.
(v)
Teaching requires convincing others.
(vi)
There can be no teaching without infrastructural support.
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(i), (iii) and (iv)
(2)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(3)
(iv), (v) and (vi)
(4)
(ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (1)
2.
What is the purpose underlying the use of teaching aids?
(1)
To make the lessons interesting
(2)
To capture the students’ attention
(3)
To enhance access to technological resources
(4)
To optimise learning outcomes
Answer: (4)
3.
In the two lists given below, List I provides the list of teaching methods,
while List II indicates the factors helpful in rendering them effective. Match
the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
List I (Teaching methods)
|
List II (Factors helpful in making
them effective)
|
(a)
Expository method
|
(i)
Trust and openness in relationship
|
(b)
Investigative method
|
(ii)
Freedom to choose a theme and scope for frank exchange of ideas
|
(c)
Discussion method
|
(iii)
Creating a challenge to address the problems
|
(d)
Personalised method
|
(iv)
Systematic, step-by-step presentation
|
(v)
Maximising infrastructural support
|
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (1)
4.
Below are given statements pertaining to evaluation systems. Identify those
which correctly explain them.
(i)
Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) focuses on a delimited domain of learning tasks.
(ii)
Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) requires a clearly defined group.
(iii)
Formative tests are given at the end of a course.
(iv)
Both Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) and Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) use
the same type of test items.
(v)
Summative tests are used regularly during teaching transactions.
(vi)
Mastery tests are examples of Norm-Referenced Testing.
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(2)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
(3)
(iv), (v) and (vi)
(4)
(ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (2)
5.
In the list given below, identify those key teaching behaviours which have been
observed to be contributive to effectiveness.
(i)
Lesson clarity
(ii)
Probing
(iii)
Teacher-task orientation
(iv)
Student success rate
(v)
Instructional variety
(vi)
Using student ideas
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2)
(iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(3)
(i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4)
(ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (3)
6.
Identify the correct order of the following components which are interrelated
in research.
(i)
Observation
(ii)
Hypothesis making
(iii)
Developing concepts
(iv)
Deducing the consequences of theories
(v)
Methods employed to obtain them
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(2)
(i), (iii), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3)
(ii), (iii), (i), (iv) and (v)
(4)
(iv), (v), (iii), (ii) and (i)
Answer: (2)
7.
In the list given below, identify those statements which correctly describe the
meaning and characteristics of research.
(i)
Research is a method of improving our common sense.
(ii)
Deductive and inductive methods get integrated in a research process.
(iii)
Research is creativity and charisma.
(iv)
Research is the use of scientific method to provide answers to meaningful questions.
(v)
Method of consulting and using experience is called research.
(vi)
The answers provided by research can be empirically verified.
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(ii), (iv) and (vi)
(2)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(3)
(iv), (v) and (vi)
(4)
(i), (iii) and (v)
Answer: (1)
8.
In the two lists given below, List I provides the types of research methods,
while List II indicates the critical features associated with them. Match the
two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
List I (Research methods)
|
List II (Critical features)
|
(a)
Ex-post facto method
|
(i)
Finding out the status based on a study of a large sample
|
(b)
Case study method
|
(ii)
Interpretation of thoughts of a great thinker
|
(c)
Philosophical method
|
(iii)
Intervention based ameliorative approach
|
(d)
Descriptive survey method
|
(iv)
Causal comparison and correlational studies
|
(v)
In-depth study of a unit specified for the purpose
|
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (v)
(4) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)
Answer: (4)
9.
A researcher uses parametric test in lieu of non-parametric test for analysis
and interpretation of results. This may be described as a case of
(1)
Unethical research practice
(2)
Malpractice in reporting of results
(3)
Technical lapse in handling data
(4)
Manipulation of research results
Answer: (3)
10.
Which of the following provides more latitude to the researcher for creative expression
?
(1)
Thesis writing
(2)
Writing of a research article
(3)
Presentation of a conference paper
(4)
Preparing a research synopsis
Answer: (3)
Read the following passage carefully and
answer questions no. 11 to 15.
Some 2000 km down south of the Amazon,
and about the same time when the tidal waves were at their highest as a
consequence of the big clash of sea and fresh water at the Amazon delta most
vigorously in March and April (2018), more than 40,000 people were talking
about the power of water. Brasilia hosted the eighth edition of the World Water
Forum (WWF – 8), where heads of states, civil societies and private sector
gathered to discuss the present and future of mankind’s most valuable resource.
This year’s theme was ‘Sharing Water’, and the government authorities
expectedly put forth a political declaration, aimed at raising awareness about
threats and opportunities associated with water resources. Deliberations here would
play a decisive role in the periodic assessment of the sustainable development goals
of Agenda 2030.
Brazil has established a solid
institutional and legal framework for water management, based on the principle
of multi-stakeholder participation. Brazil has also been conducting one of the
boldest river inter-linking projects in which 500 km of canals will transfer
abundant waters from the Sāo Francisco basin to small rivers and weirs in one
of Brazil’s most arid areas, benefitting more than 12 million people in almost
400 municipalities.
India, too, has a large variety of water
resources. An institutional framework consisting of regional river boards and
river cleansing missions has been set up, while successive Central Governments
have made efforts to address the dire needs of irrigation and mitigation of
ground water depletion. As in the case of Brazil, a lot remains to be done in
India.
Adequate treatment of industrial
waste-water, the fight against contamination of riverbeds and assistance to
drought affected areas are high priority topics for both New Delhi and
Brasilia. Due to these commonalities, there is ample room for bilateral
co-operation. Water is a local, regional and global common and as such,
collaboration is key to address most of its associated threats.
Today, mankind is faced with two facts:
water is too powerful a force to be fought over, and too valuable a resource to
be lost. To harmonise these two conflicting aspects, sharing water is perhaps
the only meaningful motto for the ages to come.
11.
As per the text of the passage, the eighth edition of the World Water Forum was
concerned with
(1)
Present and future of mankind
(2)
The issue of high tidal waves
(3)
The power of water
(4)
The role of civil society in solving water-related problems
Answer: (3)
12.
Deliberations on the theme ‘Sharing Water’ should facilitate
(1)
Regular evaluation of sustainable development goals
(2)
The role of private sector in preserving water resources
(3)
The establishment of institutional framework
(4)
Sensitisation of government authorities
Answer: (1)
13.
The institutional framework of Brazil for water management
(1)
Promotes bilateral collaboration
(2)
Provides for multi-stakeholder participation
(3)
Consists of regional river boards
(4)
Addresses legal dimensions of water sharing
Answer: (2)
14.
What would be of high priority to both New Delhi and Brasilia as regards river water
?
(1)
Proposing water as a global common
(2)
Sharing water
(3)
Development of large water resources
(4)
Fight against contamination of riverbeds
Answer: (4)
15.
The main focus of the passage is on
(1)
Resolution of water conflicts
(2)
Encouraging bilateral co-operation
(3)
Management of water as a valuable resource
(4)
River inter-linking
Answer: (3)
16.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using
the code given below.
Assertion
(A): Meanings of messages used in the classroom are arbitrary in nature.
Reason
(R): Meanings are learnt as a result of one’s prior experiences.
Code:
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)
17.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using
the code given below.
Assertion
(A): Classroom communication has a cultural dimension.
Reason
(R): Beliefs, habits, customs and languages are the cultural characteristics of
communication.
Code:
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)
18.
In a classroom, teachers and students use self-interest issues to judge
(1)
Their acceptability
(2)
Uncritical dispositions
(3)
Negative re-inforcement of ideas
(4)
External non-verbal cues
Answer: (1)
19.
Variables that affect the information processing in a classroom are
(i)
Perception levels
(ii)
Learned habits
(iii)
Attitudes, beliefs and values
(iv)
Selectivity factor
(v)
Market expectation
(vi)
Institutional intervention
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
(2)
(ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3)
(iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (4)
20.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using
the code given below.
Assertion
(A): Selective exposure in the classroom is dependent upon students’
perceptions
and knowledge about the source of information.
Reason
(R): The effectiveness of the communication source determines the selective
exposure of students to information.
Code:
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)
21.
The next term in the series 5, 11, 21, 35, 53, ?, ... is
(1)
75
(2)
90
(3)
115
(4)
125
Answer: (1)
22.
The next term in the series XY, ABC, FGHI, ? , ... is
(1)
MNPQO
(2)
MNOPQ
(3)
PQOMN
(4)
NMPOQ
Answer: (2)
23.
If the code of ALLAHABAD is DPQGOIKKO, then the code of BENGULURU will be
(1)
ESBTBDIMF
(2)
MBDBFEIST
(3)
EISMBTDBF
(4)
ESBDFBTMI
Answer: (3)
24.
A man paid Rs. 160 while travelling 10 km in a taxi which has some initial
fixed charges. Another man paid Rs. 276 for travelling 16 km and the taxi
driver charged double of the initial fixed charges from him. The charges of the
taxi per km is
(1)
Rs. 10
(2)
Rs. 13
(3)
Rs. 11
(4)
Rs. 17
Answer: (3)
25.
Gopal walks 20 m North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right
and walks 35 m. Again he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he again turns left
and walks 15 m. The shortest distance between his original position and final
one is
(1)
65 m
(2)
55 m
(3)
40 m
(4)
45 m
Answer: (4)
26.
Choose the proper alternative given in the code to replace the question mark.
Cow
– Milk
Bee
– Honey
Teacher
– ?
Code:
(1)
Marks
(2)
Discipline
(3)
Wisdom
(4)
Lesson
Answer: (3)
27.
Among the following, two statements are related in such a way that if one
becomes undetermined, the other will also be undetermined. Select the code that
refers to these two statements.
Statements:
(i)
Every fruit is nutritious.
(ii)
Fruits are hardly nutritious.
(iii)
Fruits are mostly nutritious.
(iv)
Some food items are nutritious.
Code:
(1)
(i) and (ii)
(2)
(ii) and (iii)
(3)
(iii) and (iv)
(4)
(i) and (iv)
Answer: (1)
28.
Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them.
Select
the code that embodies validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually
or jointly).
Premises:
(a)
All saints are noble.
(b)
Some religious men are saints.
Conclusions:
(i)
Some religious men are noble.
(ii)
All religious men are noble.
(iii)
Some saints are religious men.
(iv)
All noble persons are saints.
Code:
(1)
(i) and (ii)
(2)
(ii) and (iii)
(3)
(i) and (iii)
(4)
(i) and (iv)
Answer: (3)
29.
Which one is not correct in the context of deductive and inductive reasoning?
(1)
A deductive argument makes the claim that its conclusion is supported by its premises
conclusively.
(2)
A valid deductive argument may have all false premises and true conclusion.
(3)
An inductive argument claims the probability of its conclusion.
(4)
An inductive argument cannot provide us any new information about matters of
fact.
Answer: (4)
30.
When the purpose of the definition is to explain some established use of a
term, the definition is called
(1)
Stipulative
(2)
Lexical
(3)
Persuasive
(4)
Theoretical
Answer: (2)
Consider
the following two tables (I and II) that indicate the percentage of employees working
in various departments of an organization along with the ratio of men to women
in the same departments. The total number of employees in the organization is
4600. Based on these tables I and II, answer the questions that follow
(Questions no. 31 – 35):
I: Percentage of Employees Department wise
Name of the Department
|
Percentage of Employees (%)
|
IT
|
26
|
Marketing
|
22
|
Purchase
|
18
|
HR
|
11
|
Accounts
|
8
|
Production
|
15
|
II: Gender Ratio of Employees
Name of the Department
|
Ratio
|
|
Men
|
Women
|
|
IT
|
1
|
3
|
Marketing
|
1
|
1
|
Purchase
|
5
|
1
|
HR
|
1
|
1
|
Accounts
|
3
|
1
|
Production
|
3
|
2
|
31.
What is the total number of women in the Accounts department?
(1)
86
(2)
102
(3)
80
(4)
92
Answer: (4)
32.
What is the total number of employees working in the IT and HR departments together
?
(1)
1628
(2)
1646
(3)
1766
(4)
1702
Answer: (4)
33.
What is the ratio of the total number of men to total number of women working
in all the departments put together?
(1)
63 : 41
(2)
41 : 27
(3)
53 : 47
(4)
27 : 19
Answer: (3)
34.
The number of women in the Purchase department forms what percentage of the total
number of employees in the organization?
(1)
3%
(2)
6%
(3)
1%
(4)
12%
Answer: (1)
35.
What is the ratio of the number of men in the Production department to the
number of men in the Marketing department ?
(1)
7 : 3
(2)
9 : 11
(3)
13 : 7
(4)
11 : 9
Answer: (2)
36.
Which of the following statement(s) regarding the term ICT is/are true?
P:
A digital divide is an economic and social equality with regard to access to,
use of, or impact of ICT.
Q:
ICT helps in international development by bridging the digital divide and providing
equitable access to technologies.
Choose
the correct answer from the following:
(1)
P only
(2)
Q only
(3)
P and Q
(4)
Neither P nor Q
Answer: (2)
37.
A confidential file needs to be deleted from a workstation. Which is the most effective
way to ensure this?
(1)
Rename the file
(2)
Compress the file and back-up to tape
(3)
Copy and paste the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin
(4)
Drag the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin
Answer: (4)
38.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with regard to websites?
P:
A blog is a website that consists of posts in reverse chronological order.
Q:
A wiki is a website that is designed to allow people to collaborate easily.
Choose
the correct answer from the following:
(1)
P only
(2)
Q only
(3)
P and Q
(4)
Neither P nor Q
Answer: (3)
39.
In the context of e-mail, what is ‘spam’?
(1)
The act of overloading an e-mail server by using denial-of-service attacks
(2)
E-mail messages that are infected with viruses
(3)
A large quantity of messages that do not reach the recipient
(4)
Unsolicited advertising sent to a large number of recipients
Answer: (4)
40.
A virus type that is capable of shifting from one computer to another without
user interaction is known as a
(1)
Worm
(2)
Trojan
(3)
Logic bomb
(4)
Boot sector
Answer: (1)
41.
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are formally known as
(1)
Transforming Our World: 2030 Agenda
(2)
Sustainable Living For All: 2022 Agenda
(3)
Life Of Dignity For All: 2022 Agenda
(4)
One Planet, One People: 2030 Agenda
Answer: (1)
42.
An earthquake of a magnitude in the range of 6·0 – 6·9 on the Richter Scale is considered
(1)
Moderate
(2)
Strong
(3)
Major
(4)
Great
Answer: (2)
43.
Frequent episodes of dense smog in winter season in the National Capital Region
(NCR) can be attributed to
(i)
Stubble burning
(ii)
Biomass burning in rural households
(iii)
Transport
(iv)
Transboundary movement of pollutants
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(i) and (iii)
(2)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(3)
(i), (iii) and (iv)
(4)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (4)
44.
Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) comprises of
(i)
Household waste
(ii)
Sanitation residue
(iii)
Waste from streets
(iv)
Construction and demolition debris
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(2)
(i) and (iii)
(3)
(i), (iii) and (iv)
(4)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (4)
45.
As per the Indian Government’s target for exploiting renewable energy sources,
the percentage share of solar and wind energy in the total power generation
from renewable energy sources by the year 2022 will be about
(1)
~ 91·43%
(2)
~ 57·14%
(3)
~ 50%
(4)
~ 60%
Answer: (1)
46.
The mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC) includes
(i)
Disbursing grants to Universities and colleges
(ii)
Recognising and monitoring technical institutions
(iii)
Funding research centres in Universities
(iv)
Managing various scholarship programmes
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
(2)
(i), (iii) and (iv)
(3)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(4)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (2)
47.
Which one of the following States is going to have India’s first National Rail
and Transportation University?
(1)
Uttar Pradesh
(2)
Maharashtra
(3)
Bihar
(4)
Gujarat
Answer: (4)
48.
The Citizen’s Charter is an instrument which seeks to make an organisation
(i)
Transparent
(ii)
Accountable
(iii)
Formal
(iv)
Accessible
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(i) and (iii)
(2)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(3)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
(4)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (3)
49.
The Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential
election, if
(1)
he/she himself/herself is a candidate
(2)
he/she is a caretaker Chief Minister
(3)
he/she has a criminal case pending against him/her
(4)
he/she is a nominated member of the State Legislative Assembly
Answer: (4)
50.
In the QS World Rankings (2018), which of the following Indian Universities
is/are among the top 500 Universities?
(i)
University of Delhi
(ii)
University of Hyderabad
(iii)
Banaras Hindu University
(iv)
Jawaharlal Nehru University
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1)
(i) only
(2)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
(3)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(4)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (1)
You may be also interested in the following NTA UGC NET Solved Question
Paper-1.
